Toward the end of Bill Whitaker's interview with Mark Pomerantz last night on "60 Minutes", there hung the question never asked. Whitaker asks/asserts that (some of?) the loans gained through fraudulent property values were paid off. Therefore, it could be argued, there was no crime. Pomerantz retorts that not getting away with the goal of a fraud is no defense.
What neither Whitaker nor Pomerantz delved into: was the ability to pay back the loans due to a (much?) lower interest rate gained by the inflated property values? Many have stated, IIRC even Mikey Cohen, that the reason for inflating property values was simply to gain more favorable terms on loans. And, conversely, to deflate the value of properties when dealing with The Tax Man to gain more favorable taxes.
There are, it would appear, two outcomes to the question:
- yes, the interest rate on the loans garnered with the fraudulent valuations was X points lower and Y dollars less to pay back
- no, the lenders knew that Trump is a lying grifter and charged him the going rate; that would require the lenders to testify at trial that they had independent assessments done
If the answer is no, then there is the possibility the lenders were/are aiding and abetting fraud. Only the lawyers know.
All of which leads to another question not asked, to wit: was the cash flow used to retire these loans garnered, if only in part, from further fraudulent loans? In other words, is TTO just an ongoing Ponzi scheme? Enquiring minds need to know.
06 February 2023
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